Certification Exam

Question 1

Identify the structure labeled “A”

Question 2

Identify the structure labeled “B”

Question 3

Identify the structure labeled “C”

Question 4

Identify the structure labeled “D”

Question 5

Identify the structure labeled “E”

Question 6

Identify the structure labeled “F”

Question 7

Identify the structure labeled “G”

Question 8

Identify the structure labeled “H”

Question 9

Identify the structure labeled “I”

Question 10

Identify the structure labeled “J”

Question 11

Identify the structure labeled “W”

Question 12

Identify the structure labeled “FF”

Question 13

Identify the structure labeled “S”

Question 14

Identify the structure labeled “M”

Question 15

Identify the structure labeled “K”

Question 16

Identify the structure labeled “A”

Question 17

Identify the structure labeled “C”

Question 18

Identify the structure labeled “E”

Question 19

Identify the structure labeled “F”

Question 20

Identify the structure labeled “G”

Question 21

Identify the structure labeled “H”

Question 22

Identify the structure labeled “I”

Question 23

Identify the structure labeled “K”

Question 24

Identify the structure labeled “N”

Question 25

Identify the structure labeled “P”

Question 26

Identify the structure labeled “R”

Question 27

Identify the structure labeled “T”

Question 28

Identify the structure labeled “U”

Question 29

Identify the structure labeled “X”

Question 30

Identify the structure labeled “Z”

Question 31

Identify the structure labeled “A”

Question 32

Identify the structure labeled “C”

Question 33

Identify the structure labeled “D”

Question 34

Identify the structure labeled “F”

Question 35

Identify the structure labeled “G”

Question 36

Identify the structure labeled “H”

Question 37

Identify the structure labeled “I”

Question 38

Identify the structure labeled “J”

Question 39

Identify the structure labeled “L”

Question 40

Identify the structure labeled “N”

Question 41

Identify the structure labeled “P”

Question 42

Identify the structure labeled “Q”

Question 43

Identify the structure labeled “U”

Question 44

Identify the structure labeled “V”

Question 45

Identify the structure labeled “Y”

The period in which overload is needed to ensure proper growth and progression of the muscle is called?

According to the principles of Triple Progressive Overload, what is the proper sequence to overload a respective muscle?

What genetic somatotype is best described as “small bone diameter at the wrist and ankle, but spherical (apple/pear shaped) at the body?

The PAR-Q Form is designed to do all of the following except?

Used to measure the intensity and energy requirement of an activity

PNF stands for what?

The muscles that make up the rotator cuff are:

Which of these are physical characteristics of a “Good” personal trainer?

The first, larger number in a BP reading is referred to as?

What is the term that is described as “farther from the point of origin”?

Taking a pulse at the wrist would necessitate palpation of what artery?

When performing a shoulder press, what muscle is acting as an assisting muscle?

A dumbbell fly is a pre-exhaust exercise for the:

Dehydration can affect performance up to what percentage?:

An individual training in the Phosphagen System has approximately how much energy available?

The muscle with primary responsibility for the given body movement is the _______?

What is the purpose of a tendon?

How many essential nutrients supply energy?

Measuring Energy: 1 gram of fat equals how many calories

In the anatomy of a muscle, what percentage is made up of protein?

What does the acronym RPE stand for?

What statement below is true about “red” muscle fibers?

What genetic somatotype has these three characteristics: small frame, thin muscles, usually characterized by low % body fat:

The closer the tendon inserts to a joint the more mechanical advantage one will have within that muscle:

Approximately how much energy is available for someone training in the anaerobic glycolysis energy system?

For the client with a goal of strength, time of tension should occur for how long?

The point at which an individuals blood lactate levels rise in response to increasing exercise intensity:

Located within the muscle belly, senses excessive lengthening in connective tissue to prevent over-stretching

Muscle fibers are made up of small, thread-like strands known as:

Myofilaments consist primarily of two contractile proteins called:

Indicate whether the following exercises are single or double and push or pull: Chest Press

Indicate whether the following exercises are single or double and push or pull: Chin Up

Indicate whether the following exercises are single or double and push or pull: Bicep Curl

Indicate whether the following exercises are single or double and push or pull: Seated Row

Indicate whether the following exercises are single or double and push or pull: Straight Leg Hip Flexor

Indicate whether the following exercises are single or double and push or pull: Anterior Deltoid Raise

Indicate whether the following exercises are single or double and push or pull: Pullover

Indicate whether the following exercises are single or double and push or pull: Dip

Contraction in which the muscle develops tension as it lengthens:

Do not ever test an adolescent’s strength with less than ________ repetitions:

When training adolescents, accidents usually occur when:

If the trainee is over 65 and not accustomed to exercise, they should:

Osteoporosis can be slowed because resistance training improves bone density

Pregnant women should follow these guidelines except:

All of the following are recommended when training a physically challenged client except:

All of the following are advantages of manual resistance training except:

All of the following are reasons for giving out a medical history questionnaire except?

According to NSPA, a blood pressure reading above what value should warrant a medical referral for medical clearance prior to engaging in activity?

At which phase of the Korotkoff sounds is the diastolic pressure measured?

In general, the healthy range of body fat percentage in men is:

NSPA recommends to take skinfold body-fat measurement:

Which of the following is not a category of muscle?

A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it controls or innervates are called?

Increase in the cross-sectional area of muscle fibers in response to increased demands placed on a muscle is called:

The muscle that contract isometrically to eliminate multiple joint action during the performance of a desired movement are called?

When resistance remains constant throughout the lift but muscle force output varies (i.e. Free Weights)

The following are factors that effect muscle development, size and strength except:

There are how many lumbar vertebrae?

Dividing the body into front and back would describe which plane of reference?

Turning the palm of the hand forward (anatomical position)

The following would be a post-exhaustion for the shoulder press:

Muscle cell energy is stored in this compound. Energy released during its breakdown by the action of enzymes:

This type of cholesterol helps clean the blood by removing fat from the arteries:

The programming variables for aerobic exercise prescription are:

Measuring Energy: 1 gram of carbohydrates equals how many calories?

The amount of energy the body burns just to keep a person alive for a specified period of time:

How many essential nutrients are there?

Which of these essential nutrients does not supply energy

There are approximately 20 different amino acids. Out of those 20, how many must be ingested (essential amino acids)?

A long term plan based upon the clients goals which include specific monthly, weekly, and daily objectives:

The warm up always precedes strenuous activity for the purpose of all of the following except:

While recovery from High Intensity Strength training varies between individuals, it is recommended to allow how many hours between strength training sessions for any given muscle group?

The initial treatment steps of musculoskeletal injuries are R.I.C.E. What does the “C” stand for?

A stretching position held with no movement, in which the body segments to be stretched are held to the point of gentle tension:

In performing the “perfect rep”, the total time for each rep should be:

In general, for safe and effective maximum strength building use the following rep/time under tension guidelines:

Body fat is important to the body for all these reasons except:

The bicep curl involves what antagonist muscle?

Strength Training that effectively exhausts a muscle but requires no joint movement is called:

What muscle does the shin curl (ankle dorsiflexion) develop?

Ligaments serve what purpose in the body

Flexion of the leg at the knee joint involves a concentric contraction of the ________ muscle group.

Abduction of the arm at the shoulder joint involves the concentric contraction of _______ muscle.

The biceps Femoris is utilized when performing a hamstring/leg curl:

In reference to performing a skin caliper test, the direction of the “Triceps” pinch is:

The following muscles make up the hamstring group:

Which of these is a way to add variety to a workout for better results with less injury risk?

MMF stand for:

How should you spot the bench press?

Which of the following exercises should not have a spotter?